HOMOSEXUALITY

               This page deals with the matter of  Homosexuality from the Biblical perspective.  The main concern here is with what the Bible SAYS.  Homosexuality may be defined as the sexual attraction (whether overt or not) of  two of  more people for the same sex.  Generally, the term is used of  male with male; the term lesbian is used for sexual attraction of one or more females for another female.  However, the term homosexual will be used to refer to both.  Any other term is not valid except the term sodomy based on the Biblical town, Sodom.

1. The Old Testament.  The Old Testament has a few references to homosexuality.  There is no doubt that these speak very clearly about it.
     a. Genesis 19.  This chapter deals with the situation in Sodom.  The main verse is verse 5, "And they  [men of the city, young and old]  called unto Lot, and said unto him, 'Where are the men which came in to thee this night?  Bring them out unto us, that we may know them." (Bold type for emphasis).  That this word "know" refers to sexual activity as often used that way.  That this is the case here is evident from verses 7 and 8.  Sodom (and Gomorrah for that matter) were not judged for lack of  hospitality as suggested by some.  Clearly, the judgment against Sodom and surrounding cities were due to the sin of  homosexuality.  Any other construction on this event is a travesty and an attempt to avoid the plain evidence set herein.
     b. Leviticus 18:22.  In Leviticus 18:22, it is stated, "Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind; it is abomination."  This entire chapter is dealing with wrong sexual practices.  The context clearly indicates this fact.  The next verse deals with sex with an animal; the preceding to giving one's seed in idolatrous practices.  To confine verse 22  to the idolatrous practice is a travesty of  this verse, and one would be forced (logically) to confine verse 23 as well as verse 20 to it also.  Obviously, this is not possible; therefore, verse 22 must teach just what it says, namely, homosexuality is a sin as much as any of  the other wrong sexual practices in this chapter.
     c. Leviticus 20:13.  Likewise, Leviticus 20:13 clearly sets forth this sin:  "If a man also lie with mankind, as he lieth with a woman, both of  them have committed an abomination."  Again, the context shows that sexual sins are in view.  Any other explanation  that this verse teaches something other than homosexuality is a sin is a travesty and an attempt to avoid the plain meaning of this verse.
     d. 1 Samuel 18.  One  other  passage  must  be  considered  because  it  is  used  to  try  to  show  the  rightness of homosexuality.  This passage deals with the bond of friendship between David and Jonathan.  Twice it says that Jonathan "loved him [David] as his own soul."  First of  all, love does not require sexual activity.  sEcond, the common used term in the Old Testament for sexual contact, namely, know is not used at all.  There is absolutely nothing in this passage which implies any sexual relationship between Jonathan and David.  Any attempt to construe this is a desperate try to make a case where there is none.

2. The New Testament.  In the New Testament there is only one passage that deals with this subject directly.
     a.  Ephesians 4:19 has implications of  this sin, but no direct statement.
     b. The main passage is Romans 1:26, 27--"For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections;  for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature; and likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of  the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompense of  their error which is meet."
          Some have tried to argue that this passage refers to idolaters.  Though idolaters may practice this, these verses are more general.  Furthermore, it would be necessary to confine verses 28-32 to idolaters which is patently false.  Idolatry is in the context, but that does not mean that any of these practices are confined to it.
          These verses are very, very clear that it is sin for men to have sex with men and women with women.  To put any other construction on these verses is a travesty of  the plain meaning of  the words.
     c. It is quite possible that 1 Corinthians 6:9 has a reference to homosexuality in the phrase "abusers of  themselves with mankind."  The Greek word  refers to homosexuality (or sodomy). Even the word "effeminate" has the meaning in the Greek of an unnatural lust.  The context is the word "adulterers."  

    In conclusion, It must be made clear that God does not hate the homosexual; He does hate their sin.  Furthermore, it must be made clear that this sin is no greater than adultery, etc.  Also, being referred here is to the actual physical act, not any emotional or psychological tendency.  Being tempted is not sin; but doing is.  The solution lies in turning from the sin to the Lord Jesus Christ Who is able to save to the uttermost.  Then you can hear the Savior say as He did to the woman taken in adultery, "Neither do I condemn thee; go and sin no more." (John 8:11).  Jesus did not condone her sin, but forgave her and told to sin no more.  To the homosexual, the words of Christ comes; He will forgive you, and then tell you to sin no more.  For more help, go to the web page, How to Be Saved.

HOME PAGE